Blessy Babu Jul 24, 2026

DHA Prometric Exam Sample Questions for General Practitioner

Quick Answer: The DHA Prometric Exam for General Practitioners is a computer-based, multiple-choice licensing test administered by the Dubai Health Authority. It evaluates a candidate's clinical judgement across specialisations including internal medicine, obstetrics, paediatrics, and surgery. Below are 20 sample questions in the same format and difficulty level as the real exam, designed to help you understand the question style and prepare effectively.

The Dubai Health Authority (DHA) works to build an accessible, integrated healthcare system across the Emirates. Any medical professional who wants to practice legally in Dubai must first clear the DHA Prometric Exam.

The exam is entirely MCQ-based and is designed to test how confidently a candidate can apply clinical knowledge to real patient scenarios, not just recall facts. Practicing DHA-style questions consistently is one of the most effective ways to prepare, since it trains you to think through cases the way the exam expects. 

Read Also: How to Pass the DHA Exam Easily? 

Why General Practitioners Need to Clear the DHA Exam

A General Practitioner (GP) is usually a patient's first point of contact and plays a central role in Dubai's public healthcare system. Demand for licensed GPs in Dubai continues to grow alongside the emirate's expanding healthcare sector. To practice as a GP in Dubai, passing the DHA Exam is mandatory.

Planning to work as a doctor in the UAE? Learn the step-by-step process of obtaining a medical license in our guide on How to Get a Medical License to Practice in Dubai?

Enrolling in Edoxi's DHA Course gives you structured coaching built around the real exam pattern, so your preparation is targeted rather than generic. The sample questions below reflect that same pattern and are a good starting point to gauge where you currently stand.

How to Use These Sample Questions

These questions cover the kind of case-based clinical reasoning the DHA Exam is known for; each one presents a patient scenario and asks you to identify the most appropriate next step, not just the correct diagnosis. As you go through them, try to explain why you're choosing an answer, not just which option feels right. That habit mirrors how the real exam tests judgement under time pressure.
 

General Practitioner Sample Questions- Set 1

1. Ectopic Pregnancy

Question: A 28-year-old woman presents with 6 weeks amenorrhea, lower abdominal pain, and mild vaginal spotting. She appears pale and slightly tachycardic. Urine pregnancy test is positive. On examination, there is adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness.
 
What is the most appropriate next investigation?

A) CBC

B) Serum β-hCG quantitative

C) Pelvic ultrasound

D) Urine routine

Answer: C. Pelvic ultrasound

Explanation: In a hemodynamically stable woman with suspected ectopic pregnancy, transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is the investigation of choice to determine the location of the pregnancy. Quantitative β-hCG is useful alongside ultrasound but does not confirm the diagnosis by itself.

2. Acute Coronary Syndrome

Question: A 55-year-old male with diabetes presents with severe central chest pain radiating to the left arm, sweating, and nausea for 1 hour. BP 150/90 mmHg, pulse 100/min.
 
What is the first immediate management step?

A) Start statins

B) Give aspirin

C) Order ECG

D) Start beta-blocker

Answer: B. Give aspirin

Explanation: Aspirin (160–325 mg, chewed) should be administered immediately in suspected acute coronary syndrome because it reduces mortality. An ECG should be obtained within 10 minutes but should not delay aspirin administration.

3. Hyperemesis Gravidarum

Question: A 24-year-old pregnant woman at 9 weeks presents with persistent vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria.
 
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Gastritis

B) Hyperemesis gravidarum

C) Food poisoning

D) GERD

Answer: B. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Explanation: Severe vomiting in early pregnancy associated with dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria is characteristic of hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. Diabetes Diagnosis

Question: A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Random blood glucose is 210 mg/dL.
 
Which test confirms the diagnosis?

A) Fasting glucose once

B) HbA1c

C) Urine glucose

D) Lipid profile

Answer: B. HbA1c

Explanation: An HbA1c ≥6.5% confirms diabetes. In a patient with classic symptoms, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL is also diagnostic.

5. Stroke Recognition

Question: A 60-year-old man presents with sudden right-sided weakness and slurred speech for 1 hour. BP 170/100 mmHg.
 
What is the most important next step?

A) Start aspirin immediately

B) CT scan brain

C) Give antihypertensive

D) Start statins

Answer: B. CT scan brain

Explanation: A non-contrast CT scan of the brain is essential to distinguish ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke before initiating treatment such as thrombolysis or aspirin.

6. Tuberculosis Suspicion

Question: A 35-year-old man presents with chronic cough, night sweats, fever, and weight loss for 2 months.
 
What is the initial diagnostic test?

A) Chest X-ray

B) Sputum for AFB

C) CBC

D) CT scan

Answer: B. Sputum for AFB

Explanation: Sputum examination for acid-fast bacilli (or GeneXpert where available) is the primary diagnostic test for pulmonary tuberculosis. Chest X-ray supports the diagnosis but is not confirmatory.

7. Pediatric Croup

Question: A 2-year-old child presents with barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever. Symptoms worsen at night.
 
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Epiglottitis

B) Asthma

C) Croup

D) Bronchiolitis

Answer: C. Croup

Explanation: Barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and nighttime worsening are classic features of viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis).

8. Hypertension in Pregnancy

Question: A 30-year-old pregnant woman (20 weeks) is diagnosed with hypertension (BP 150/95 mmHg).
 
Which is the drug of choice?

A) Enalapril

B) Losartan

C) Methyldopa

D) Atenolol

Answer: C. Methyldopa

Explanation: Methyldopa is a safe antihypertensive during pregnancy. (Current guidelines also recommend labetalol and nifedipine as first-line agents.)

9. Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy

Question: A known hypothyroid woman becomes pregnant. What adjustment is needed?
 
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Stop levothyroxine

B) Reduce dose

C) Increase dose

D) No change

Answer: C. Increase dose

Explanation: Pregnancy increases thyroid hormone requirements. Levothyroxine dosage should usually be increased by approximately 25–30%, with TSH monitored every 4–6 weeks.

10. Acute Diarrhea in Child

Question: A 3-year-old child presents with watery diarrhea and mild dehydration. No blood is seen in the stool.
 
What is first-line management?

A) Antibiotics

B) IV fluids immediately

C) Oral rehydration solution (ORS)

D) Antidiarrheal drugs

Answer: C. Oral rehydration solution (ORS)

Explanation: Oral rehydration solution is the first-line treatment for children with mild to moderate dehydration due to acute diarrhea. Antibiotics are not routinely indicated unless a bacterial cause is suspected.

General Practitioner Sample Questions- Set 2

1. 19-year-old girl newly diagnosed with type 1 DM, taking aspart and glargine, complains of both fasting and postprandial hypoglycemia. HbA1c and fasting glucose are within normal range. What is the most appropriate next step?

A) Stop both

B) Decrease the dose of both

C) Continue the same

D) Stop glargine and change aspart to sliding scale

2.A patient with a known case of cirrhosis came with increasing ascites without pain or fever, he is on spironolactone 90mg and furosemide 40mg. What is the next step in management?

A) Increase the dose of furosemide

B) TIPS

C) Therapeutic paracentesis

D) Albumin replacement

3.A case of ectopic pregnancy on day 1 B-HCG was 1000, day 4>1200, day 7>700 what to do next?

A) reassure

B) consider a second dose of methotrexate

C) follow up with oncology

D) metastasis screening

4) What is the antidote for organophosphate toxicity?

A) Atropine

B) naloxone

C) succinylcholine

5) Child came in the early morning complaining if barking cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the investigation of choice?

A) bronchoscopy

B) chest radiograph

C) MRI

D) CT

6) Type of isolation for meningitis?

A) droplet

B) contact

C) mixed

D) airborne

7) Patient coming from hajj with signs of meningitis what's the tx?

A) Vancomycin and ceftriaxone

B) Vancomycin & cefotaxime

C) Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

8) Old Female patient with an incisional hernia came to ER with a discharge and ulcer over a long-standing incarcerated hernia all vitals are normal, what will you do?

A) dressing

B) laparoscopy

C) MRI

D) Laparotomy of abdomen

9) A child presented with ear pain, on examination: perforated membrane with purulent discharge: what is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Acute OM

B) Chronic OM

C) OM with effusion

D) Otitis externa

10) A 21-year-old pregnant woman, 8 weeks GA came with bleeding but stable, US done showed a non-viable fetus and age 5 weeks, appropriate mx?

A) Misoprostol

B) Hysterotomy

C) Hypertonic saline infusion

11) A 7-year-old girl having nausea and vomiting whenever on an airplane flight for more than 1 hour what to give for prevention?

A) nothing

B) ondansetron

C) granisetron

D) diphenhydramine

12) Child with muscular dystrophy. He is in RDS the parents refuse intubation because they had a child with the same condition and he died. What to do?

A) Intubate

B) Call ethics

C) Call child rights

D) Do nothing

13) A 38-week gestation with high pressure, low platelet, and protein in the urine what to do?

A) Emergency delivery

B) Observation

14) A 13-year-old boy medically free presented with neck swelling. One of the relatives was recently diagnosed with lymphoma and the family is worried about their child. Which of the following is an indication for lymph node biopsy?

A) Absence of fever

B) Presence of Hepatosplenomegaly

C) Lymph node size > 1cm

15) Child who is 18 months with left Undescended testes not palpable in the inguinal region, the left one is there what’s the most appropriate to do?

A) Left orchidopexy

B) Diagnostic laparoscopy

C) Wait till 3 years

16) Newborn baby has yellowish discoloration that is not fading for five days. Previously was diagnosed to have physiological jaundice and so phototherapy was started, which of the following is the most likely cause?

A) ABO incompatibility

B) Rh incompatibility

C) G6PD deficiency

D) Biliary atresia

17) Which of the following is the most common congenital heart disease presented with cyanosis in neonates?

A) Coarctation of the aorta 

B) PDA

C) TOF

D) TGA

E) ASD

18) An old male patient was admitted with a case of large intestinal obstruction. He underwent rigid sigmoidoscopy that showed a mass in the sigmoid region. A biopsy was taken and came back as Adenocarcinoma. What is the best next step?

A ) Colonoscopy

B ) CT abdomen

C)  MRI of the pelvis

D) Sigmoidectomy

19) Primigravid comes with labor for 4h Dilated 5 cm, effaced 80%, station +1 after 5h there is no change in the cervix, and contraction occurs every 3 min. and stays for 60 sec. What to do?

A) Instrument use

B) C/S

C) IV oxytocin

D) Wait for 2h

20) A woman was bathing her child and noticed a mass in his flank, which of the following investigation is most appropriate?

A) Abdominal radiography (XRAY)

B) Abdominal CT

C) Abdominal MRI

D) Abdominal radiography and ultrasonography

Answer Key

Question Answer Explanation
Q1 B. Decrease the dose of both The patient has recurrent fasting and postprandial hypoglycemia despite normal HbA1c and fasting glucose, indicating overtreatment. Both basal (glargine) and bolus (aspart) insulin doses should be reduced.
Q2 A. Increase the dose of furosemide The patient has worsening ascites despite relatively low-dose diuretics. The next step is to optimize diuretic therapy (maintaining the spironolactone:furosemide ratio). Therapeutic paracentesis is reserved for tense or refractory ascites.
Q3 B. Consider a second dose of methotrexate After methotrexate treatment for ectopic pregnancy, β-hCG should decrease by ≥15% between days 4 and 7. Failure to achieve this decline indicates inadequate response and requires a second dose (or surgery if unstable).
Q4 A. Atropine Atropine is the antidote that reverses muscarinic effects of organophosphate poisoning. Pralidoxime is also indicated if available but is not listed.
Q5 B. Chest radiograph The presentation is typical of viral croup. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, but among the listed investigations, a radiograph demonstrating the steeple sign is the best choice.
Q6 A. Droplet Suspected bacterial meningitis, particularly meningococcal meningitis, requires droplet precautions until at least 24 hours after effective antibiotic therapy.
Q7 A. Vancomycin and ceftriaxone Empiric treatment of adult bacterial meningitis consists of vancomycin plus a third-generation cephalosporin such as ceftriaxone.
Q8 D. Laparotomy of the abdomen Ulceration and discharge over an incarcerated hernia suggest strangulation or fistula formation, requiring urgent exploratory laparotomy.
Q9 A. Acute otitis media Acute otitis media can cause spontaneous tympanic membrane perforation with purulent otorrhea. Chronic otitis media requires persistent or recurrent discharge.
Q10 A. Misoprostol A stable patient with a missed miscarriage in the first trimester is appropriately managed medically with misoprostol.
Q11 D. Diphenhydramine Motion sickness is prevented with first-generation antihistamines such as diphenhydramine. Ondansetron and granisetron are ineffective for motion sickness.
Q12 B. Call ethics If parents refuse potentially life-saving treatment for a child, an ethics consultation should be sought urgently while acting in the child's best interests.
Q13 A. Emergency delivery At 38 weeks with hypertension, thrombocytopenia, and proteinuria (severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome), delivery is the definitive treatment.
Q14 B. Presence of hepatosplenomegaly Hepatosplenomegaly is a red flag for malignancy and is an indication for lymph node biopsy. A lymph node >1 cm alone is not sufficient in children.
Q15 B. Diagnostic laparoscopy A non-palpable undescended testis at 18 months should be evaluated with diagnostic laparoscopy, with orchidopexy performed if the testis is identified.
Q16 C. G6PD deficiency Persistent neonatal jaundice despite phototherapy suggests ongoing hemolysis. G6PD deficiency is a common cause, especially in endemic populations.
Q17 D. TGA (Transposition of the Great Arteries) TGA is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting in the neonatal period.
Q18 B. CT abdomen After biopsy-confirmed colorectal cancer, staging with contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis (often including the chest) is the next step before definitive treatment.
Q19 B. Cesarean section There has been no cervical dilation despite adequate uterine contractions for several hours, meeting criteria for arrest of labor. Cesarean section is indicated.
Q20 D. Abdominal radiography and ultrasonography A child with a palpable flank mass should undergo abdominal ultrasonography as the initial imaging study. Since ultrasound is only available in option D, it is the best choice.

 

Read Also: General Guide For The Dubai Health Authority Exam

Blessy is an experienced medical instructor who specialises in Prometric courses and NCLEX preparation. She has a wealth of knowledge in healthcare education and is highly skilled in teaching and training healthcare professionals. Her main aim is to support students in passing their Prometric exams and NCLEX certification by providing them with comprehensive and up-to-date study materials, personalised instruction, and hands-on practice exams.

Blessy's teaching approach centers on creating a supportive and engaging learning environment that encourages critical thinking, problem-solving skills, and effective test-taking strategies. She is committed to professional development and keeping up-to-date with the latest trends and advancements in the medical field. As part of her commitment, she regularly attends workshops, conferences, and seminars to enhance her expertise, ensuring that her students receive the most relevant and valuable education.

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