Blessy Babu
Jul 24, 2026
Quick Answer: The DHA Prometric Exam for General Practitioners is a computer-based, multiple-choice licensing test administered by the Dubai Health Authority. It evaluates a candidate's clinical judgement across specialisations including internal medicine, obstetrics, paediatrics, and surgery. Below are 20 sample questions in the same format and difficulty level as the real exam, designed to help you understand the question style and prepare effectively.
The Dubai Health Authority (DHA) works to build an accessible, integrated healthcare system across the Emirates. Any medical professional who wants to practice legally in Dubai must first clear the DHA Prometric Exam.
The exam is entirely MCQ-based and is designed to test how confidently a candidate can apply clinical knowledge to real patient scenarios, not just recall facts. Practicing DHA-style questions consistently is one of the most effective ways to prepare, since it trains you to think through cases the way the exam expects.
Read Also: How to Pass the DHA Exam Easily?
A General Practitioner (GP) is usually a patient's first point of contact and plays a central role in Dubai's public healthcare system. Demand for licensed GPs in Dubai continues to grow alongside the emirate's expanding healthcare sector. To practice as a GP in Dubai, passing the DHA Exam is mandatory.
Planning to work as a doctor in the UAE? Learn the step-by-step process of obtaining a medical license in our guide on How to Get a Medical License to Practice in Dubai?
Enrolling in Edoxi's DHA Course gives you structured coaching built around the real exam pattern, so your preparation is targeted rather than generic. The sample questions below reflect that same pattern and are a good starting point to gauge where you currently stand.
A) CBC
B) Serum β-hCG quantitative
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Urine routine
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Explanation: In a hemodynamically stable woman with suspected ectopic pregnancy, transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is the investigation of choice to determine the location of the pregnancy. Quantitative β-hCG is useful alongside ultrasound but does not confirm the diagnosis by itself.
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A) Start statins
B) Give aspirin
C) Order ECG
D) Start beta-blocker
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Explanation: Aspirin (160–325 mg, chewed) should be administered immediately in suspected acute coronary syndrome because it reduces mortality. An ECG should be obtained within 10 minutes but should not delay aspirin administration.
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A) Gastritis
B) Hyperemesis gravidarum
C) Food poisoning
D) GERD
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Explanation: Severe vomiting in early pregnancy associated with dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria is characteristic of hyperemesis gravidarum.
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A) Fasting glucose once
B) HbA1c
C) Urine glucose
D) Lipid profile
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Explanation: An HbA1c ≥6.5% confirms diabetes. In a patient with classic symptoms, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL is also diagnostic. |
A) Start aspirin immediately
B) CT scan brain
C) Give antihypertensive
D) Start statins
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Explanation: A non-contrast CT scan of the brain is essential to distinguish ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke before initiating treatment such as thrombolysis or aspirin.
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A) Chest X-ray
B) Sputum for AFB
C) CBC
D) CT scan
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Explanation: Sputum examination for acid-fast bacilli (or GeneXpert where available) is the primary diagnostic test for pulmonary tuberculosis. Chest X-ray supports the diagnosis but is not confirmatory.
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A) Epiglottitis
B) Asthma
C) Croup
D) Bronchiolitis
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Explanation: Barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and nighttime worsening are classic features of viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis).
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A) Enalapril
B) Losartan
C) Methyldopa
D) Atenolol
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Explanation: Methyldopa is a safe antihypertensive during pregnancy. (Current guidelines also recommend labetalol and nifedipine as first-line agents.)
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A) Stop levothyroxine
B) Reduce dose
C) Increase dose
D) No change
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Explanation: Pregnancy increases thyroid hormone requirements. Levothyroxine dosage should usually be increased by approximately 25–30%, with TSH monitored every 4–6 weeks.
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A) Antibiotics
B) IV fluids immediately
C) Oral rehydration solution (ORS)
D) Antidiarrheal drugs
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Explanation: Oral rehydration solution is the first-line treatment for children with mild to moderate dehydration due to acute diarrhea. Antibiotics are not routinely indicated unless a bacterial cause is suspected.
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A) Stop both
B) Decrease the dose of both
C) Continue the same
D) Stop glargine and change aspart to sliding scale
A) Increase the dose of furosemide
B) TIPS
C) Therapeutic paracentesis
D) Albumin replacement
A) reassure
B) consider a second dose of methotrexate
C) follow up with oncology
D) metastasis screening
A) Atropine
B) naloxone
C) succinylcholine
A) bronchoscopy
B) chest radiograph
C) MRI
D) CT
A) droplet
B) contact
C) mixed
D) airborne
A) Vancomycin and ceftriaxone
B) Vancomycin & cefotaxime
C) Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
A) dressing
B) laparoscopy
C) MRI
D) Laparotomy of abdomen
A) Acute OM
B) Chronic OM
C) OM with effusion
D) Otitis externa
A) Misoprostol
B) Hysterotomy
C) Hypertonic saline infusion
A) nothing
B) ondansetron
C) granisetron
D) diphenhydramine
A) Intubate
B) Call ethics
C) Call child rights
D) Do nothing
A) Emergency delivery
B) Observation
A) Absence of fever
B) Presence of Hepatosplenomegaly
C) Lymph node size > 1cm
A) Left orchidopexy
B) Diagnostic laparoscopy
C) Wait till 3 years
A) ABO incompatibility
B) Rh incompatibility
C) G6PD deficiency
D) Biliary atresia
A) Coarctation of the aorta
B) PDA
C) TOF
D) TGA
E) ASD
A ) Colonoscopy
B ) CT abdomen
C) MRI of the pelvis
D) Sigmoidectomy
A) Instrument use
B) C/S
C) IV oxytocin
D) Wait for 2h
A) Abdominal radiography (XRAY)
B) Abdominal CT
C) Abdominal MRI
D) Abdominal radiography and ultrasonography
Answer Key
| Question | Answer | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B. Decrease the dose of both | The patient has recurrent fasting and postprandial hypoglycemia despite normal HbA1c and fasting glucose, indicating overtreatment. Both basal (glargine) and bolus (aspart) insulin doses should be reduced. |
| Q2 | A. Increase the dose of furosemide | The patient has worsening ascites despite relatively low-dose diuretics. The next step is to optimize diuretic therapy (maintaining the spironolactone:furosemide ratio). Therapeutic paracentesis is reserved for tense or refractory ascites. |
| Q3 | B. Consider a second dose of methotrexate | After methotrexate treatment for ectopic pregnancy, β-hCG should decrease by ≥15% between days 4 and 7. Failure to achieve this decline indicates inadequate response and requires a second dose (or surgery if unstable). |
| Q4 | A. Atropine | Atropine is the antidote that reverses muscarinic effects of organophosphate poisoning. Pralidoxime is also indicated if available but is not listed. |
| Q5 | B. Chest radiograph | The presentation is typical of viral croup. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, but among the listed investigations, a radiograph demonstrating the steeple sign is the best choice. |
| Q6 | A. Droplet | Suspected bacterial meningitis, particularly meningococcal meningitis, requires droplet precautions until at least 24 hours after effective antibiotic therapy. |
| Q7 | A. Vancomycin and ceftriaxone | Empiric treatment of adult bacterial meningitis consists of vancomycin plus a third-generation cephalosporin such as ceftriaxone. |
| Q8 | D. Laparotomy of the abdomen | Ulceration and discharge over an incarcerated hernia suggest strangulation or fistula formation, requiring urgent exploratory laparotomy. |
| Q9 | A. Acute otitis media | Acute otitis media can cause spontaneous tympanic membrane perforation with purulent otorrhea. Chronic otitis media requires persistent or recurrent discharge. |
| Q10 | A. Misoprostol | A stable patient with a missed miscarriage in the first trimester is appropriately managed medically with misoprostol. |
| Q11 | D. Diphenhydramine | Motion sickness is prevented with first-generation antihistamines such as diphenhydramine. Ondansetron and granisetron are ineffective for motion sickness. |
| Q12 | B. Call ethics | If parents refuse potentially life-saving treatment for a child, an ethics consultation should be sought urgently while acting in the child's best interests. |
| Q13 | A. Emergency delivery | At 38 weeks with hypertension, thrombocytopenia, and proteinuria (severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome), delivery is the definitive treatment. |
| Q14 | B. Presence of hepatosplenomegaly | Hepatosplenomegaly is a red flag for malignancy and is an indication for lymph node biopsy. A lymph node >1 cm alone is not sufficient in children. |
| Q15 | B. Diagnostic laparoscopy | A non-palpable undescended testis at 18 months should be evaluated with diagnostic laparoscopy, with orchidopexy performed if the testis is identified. |
| Q16 | C. G6PD deficiency | Persistent neonatal jaundice despite phototherapy suggests ongoing hemolysis. G6PD deficiency is a common cause, especially in endemic populations. |
| Q17 | D. TGA (Transposition of the Great Arteries) | TGA is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting in the neonatal period. |
| Q18 | B. CT abdomen | After biopsy-confirmed colorectal cancer, staging with contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis (often including the chest) is the next step before definitive treatment. |
| Q19 | B. Cesarean section | There has been no cervical dilation despite adequate uterine contractions for several hours, meeting criteria for arrest of labor. Cesarean section is indicated. |
| Q20 | D. Abdominal radiography and ultrasonography | A child with a palpable flank mass should undergo abdominal ultrasonography as the initial imaging study. Since ultrasound is only available in option D, it is the best choice. |
Read Also: General Guide For The Dubai Health Authority Exam
Blessy is an experienced medical instructor who specialises in Prometric courses and NCLEX preparation. She has a wealth of knowledge in healthcare education and is highly skilled in teaching and training healthcare professionals. Her main aim is to support students in passing their Prometric exams and NCLEX certification by providing them with comprehensive and up-to-date study materials, personalised instruction, and hands-on practice exams.
Blessy's teaching approach centers on creating a supportive and engaging learning environment that encourages critical thinking, problem-solving skills, and effective test-taking strategies. She is committed to professional development and keeping up-to-date with the latest trends and advancements in the medical field. As part of her commitment, she regularly attends workshops, conferences, and seminars to enhance her expertise, ensuring that her students receive the most relevant and valuable education.